In his report "Obama finds way out of 'red-line' ultimatum," F. Michael Maloof writes:
"This resolution [War Powers Resolution of 1973] … does not require the president to get approval prior to acting, as Obama now is doing in the case of Syria."
I was surprised to see this type of disinformation being propagated by WND. Mr. Maloof is either ignorant of what the War Powers Resolution actually says or he's lying. The text of the Resolution is hardly difficult to understand:
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"The constitutional powers of the President as Commander-in-Chief to introduce United States Armed Forces into hostilities, or into situations where imminent involvement in hostilities is clearly indicated by the circumstances, are exercised only pursuant to (1) a declaration of war, (2) specific statutory authorization, or (3) a national emergency created by attack upon the United States, its territories or possessions, or its armed forces." (Section 2, c)
Now, unless Syria has launched an "attack upon the United States, its territories or possessions, or its armed forces" that I'm unaware of, it clearly states that the president does not have the authority to act militarily against Syria without the prior authorization of the U.S. Congress. The 48 hour notification and 60 day time line referred to in the report only applies when the president has immediately responded to a bona fide emergency resulting from an attack upon our country. That's the only time the president can introduce our Armed Forces into hostilities without prior congressional approval.